As a woman, I am always fascinated by the inclusion in Jesus’ genealogy of Tamar (Judah’s daughter-in-law, whom Judah impregnated thinking she was a temple prostitute), Rehab (a Gentile who hid the spies), and Ruth (a Gentile Moabitess, who marries Boaz, a picture of Jesus as our kinsman-redeemer!). Also, “the wife of Uriah the Hittite (Bathsheba) — who is often referred to in this manner rather than by name! Women were of no particular consequence or value in these ancient cultures so their inclusion is significant in the Biblical text.
In Greek, it says ἐκ τῆς τοῦ Οὐρίου, "from the [X} of Uriah." The ESV is a pretty good translation here. It's a ellipitical phrase requiring the reader to supply γυναικός, "woman or wife," after the article τῆς. There's actually not a verb in the phrase to be present or past tense.
Or a woman who had been Uriah’s wife. It’s so present tense to my ears rather than past tense. Care to comment regarding these translation differences?
I did not know about this hyperlink! Thank you! “… by the wife of Uriah” ESV smacked me in the face this reading; not referring to Bathsheba as Uriah’s widow or a woman who had been
As a woman, I am always fascinated by the inclusion in Jesus’ genealogy of Tamar (Judah’s daughter-in-law, whom Judah impregnated thinking she was a temple prostitute), Rehab (a Gentile who hid the spies), and Ruth (a Gentile Moabitess, who marries Boaz, a picture of Jesus as our kinsman-redeemer!). Also, “the wife of Uriah the Hittite (Bathsheba) — who is often referred to in this manner rather than by name! Women were of no particular consequence or value in these ancient cultures so their inclusion is significant in the Biblical text.
Yes, next time we come around to Matthew 1, that's probably what I'll write on. Sometimes deciding what to comment on is the hardest part!
I love the connection here to creation and the eschaton. Thank you!
In Greek, it says ἐκ τῆς τοῦ Οὐρίου, "from the [X} of Uriah." The ESV is a pretty good translation here. It's a ellipitical phrase requiring the reader to supply γυναικός, "woman or wife," after the article τῆς. There's actually not a verb in the phrase to be present or past tense.
Or a woman who had been Uriah’s wife. It’s so present tense to my ears rather than past tense. Care to comment regarding these translation differences?
I did not know about this hyperlink! Thank you! “… by the wife of Uriah” ESV smacked me in the face this reading; not referring to Bathsheba as Uriah’s widow or a woman who had been